A 65 year old obese woman is evaluated in your office during an annual follow up visit. She has a history of moderate osteoarthritis and she takes over the counter ibuprofen for arthritis pain. She was recently hospitalized with one episode of gastrointestinal bleeding about 5 months ago. She is being maintained on a proton pump inhibitor. Her other medical problems include hypertension and a history of transient ischemic attack about 2 months ago. Upon review of her medications, you note that she is not on any antiplatelet therapy. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following recommendations is most appropriate management for this patient?
A) Warfarin
B) Aspirin and Dipyridamole
C) Aspirin
D) Clopidogrel
E) Dipyridamole
[expand title=”CLICK HERE VIEW CORRECT ANSWER:”][sociallocker]Correct answer is D.[/sociallocker][/expand]